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Shoulder pain after lifting a heavy box

Written by Pendell Meyers, edits by Steve Smith


This will be too easy for most long-time readers, but if you are at that level, sit back and enjoy noticing how few milliseconds it takes to recognize this thanks to so many prior examples on this blog!

I was sent this ECG from EMS with only the information that it belonged to a middle aged male with left shoulder pain.
What do you think?











There are hyperacute T-waves in leads V1-V6, as well as in leads II, III, aVF. The J-points are all at baseline with the exception of leads V2-V3 which show a small amount of STD (which makes de Winter morphology in the presence of hyperacute T-waves).

How can you explain that the most obvious findings are in the anterior leads, yet the inferior leads are also hyperacute??

The occluded vessel must supply the anterior wall and also the apex and/or inferior wall. The most common variant that satisfies this is a type III "wraparound" LAD. This is a large and long LAD that wraps around the apex of the heart, supplying the apex and sometimes even parts of the inferior wall.

By ECG, this acute coronary occlusion is predicted to be of very short time duration, with very high acuity and very high viability. As shown in our reference diagram below, hyperacute T-waves generally exist only within a few hours of persistent acute coronary occlusion, or immediately after reperfusion ("on the way up, and on the way down," as Dr. Smith says).








We activated the cath lab based on this EMS ECG, because it is obviously diagnostic of acute coronary occlusion involving the anterior, lateral and inferior walls. When I make this decision prospectively on this particular highly diagnostic ECG, I estimate that the likelihood of acute coronary occlusion as the etiology of these ECG findings is approximately 99%, with the remaining 1% being the occasional takotsubo cardiomyopathy with indistinguishable ECG findings, and which can only be differentiated by angiogram.


The patient arrived in the resuscitation bay at the same time as the cardiologist.

He was a middle aged man with history only of HTN who called EMS for "soreness" of the left shoulder while working in his garage. He stated he lifted a box weighing approximately 75 lbs, then set it back down, then noticed severe pain in his left shoulder described as "soreness" and "pressure." He stopped working, but the pain persisted. He waited 2-3 hours at home before calling EMS thinking the pain might simply go away.

Here is his initial ED ECG:
Essentially the same findings, hyperacute T-waves without dramatic ST segment changes.




The cardiologist was somehow not impressed by these findings. He also thought that the pain was musculoskeletal because it started around the time of lifting a heavy box. Yet on exam the patient had full range of motion without any change in his constant severe shoulder pain.

I advised the cardiologist that this patient must be taken immediately for cath and intervention. He stated that this ECG does not meet STEMI criteria. I said that the patient has an acute coronary occlusion based on the hyperacute T-waves, the same pathology as an obvious STEMI. The only difference being that there is even more viable myocardium to save than a classic obvious STEMI because there is not yet STE.

Note: The reason there is even more myocardium to save than classic STEMI is because acutely ischemic myocytes first "register" in the T-wave and create increased area under the T-wave, then as they start undergoing the process of death they register in the ST segment, and finally when they are stunned or dead they cannot conduct the action potential and register in the Q-wave. As far as I know this is not proven on a cellular level but is well supported by my experience and hundreds of cases on this blog.

He asked me where I thought the lesion was based on the ECG, and I said "mid LAD or higher, and the LAD will be a type III wraparound."

I stood by the monitor, getting repeat ECGs every 5 minutes for the next 20 minutes while trying to convince the cardiologist, expecting the repeat ECGs to show evolution to frankly obvious STE. But the ECGs did not change - hyperacute T-waves were present non-stop for approximately 45 minutes (from EMS ECG to my last ED ECG). The patient stated that his pain had been exactly the same for 3-4 hours, with no episodes of decreasing and then returning pain.

In my experience (and Dr. Smith agrees), it is unusual for hyperacute T-waves to last this long without progression or evolution. Most cases we have on this blog show evolution to obvious ST elevation, or you see the predictable progression of reperfusion and reocclusion with hyperacute T-waves in both directions. It is possible that there was reperfusion and then reocclusion between the EMS ECG and the ED ECG, although this is less likely because the patient denied temporary improvement in symptoms. Interestingly, Dr. Smith notes that de Winter himself stated that his characteristic morphology was stable for several hours, although Dr. Smith's opinion is that de Winter's data did not actually support that assertion.

It is possible that he had some very small source of collateral flow which was just barely enough to prevent progression, keeping him on the upper end of the de Winter pathology spectrum. It is also possible that the patient had recurrent brief episodes of reperfusion and reocclusion which did not have enough time to show the progression of ECG findings before reversing.



My fellow resident performed a bedside US showing a very dense anterior and apical wall motion abnormality, further confirming the diagnosis.